Catholic philosopher, James Kidd, has written a fascinating and accessible article on the existence of God, published in This Rock magazine. You can read the article for yourself here: A Proof of the Existence of God. I've summarized my take on the argument below.
First of all, Kidd begins by offering a somewhat Cartesian proof of the existence of the self. Cogito, ergo sum, or "I think, therefore I am" is Descartes' oft-cited maxim. I cannot doubt my own existence without first existing.
Nevertheless, we can conceive of a state of affairs in which we do not exist. This means that in order to exist, we must possess the attribute of esse ("existence" or "being"). Another expedient example is the conception of an acorn (Kidd uses the example of a chicken egg). The difference between a real acorn and a merely imaginary one is not based on any distinction in their "acorn-ness", but simply that the former possesses esse. A real acorn exists, whereas an imaginary acorn does not.
Now, an acorn (as with any changing entity) is composed of actuality and potentiality. It is easiest to explain these terms by connotation: an acorn is an acorn in actuality, but in potentiality it is an oak tree. It is important to note that potentiality is not a thing in and of itself, but that it is a privation (an "absence" or "lack of") actuality. As Kidd points out, "a thing considered in itself contains nothing but its fullness." The nature of an oak tree, considered in itself, possesses the quality of being an oak tree, and does not possess the lack of being an oak tree.
We can now reflect on what this implies about esse (from here on, I'll refer to esse as "being"). Since every existing thing possesses being, it must be the case that being is actual. But, being cannot be composed of any potentiality, since that would require the lack of being. Hence, being itself is pure actuality.
Now we can move on to consider the attributes of pure actuality (Pure Act). Since Pure Act exists essentially, it cannot not-be - that is, it has necessary existence. Moreover, Pure Act must be distinct from everything else. The reason why is that Pure Act contains only actuality, whereas other things are composed of actuality and potentiality. Yet, if something is true of one thing and not of another, the two must be distinct. Therefore, Pure Act is distinct from other entities.
Immutability and Eternality
In order to change, a thing must first have the potentiality to change. Yet, Pure Act is not composed of any potentiality. Therefore, Pure Act is changeless. Further, whatever comes into being or goes out of being in time must have the potentiality to do so. As a result, we can soundly conclude that Pure Act exists at all times, and is therefore eternal.
Unity
If there were more than one Pure Act, then there would be distinctions between them. But, distinctions entail limitations, and limitations entail potentiality. However, it has been demonstrated that Pure Act is not composed of potentiality, so it must be one.
Omnipresence
Everywhere that something exists, the entity in consideration must have being. As we saw above, however, every entity's existence is dependent on Pure Act. If Pure Act were not present somewhere, then nothing would exist there. Hence, Pure Act exists everywhere, e.g. it is omnipresent.
Omnipotence and Omniscience
Every entity that possesses some power and some knowledge is only partly actual. Human beings, for example, have some power and some knowledge, but we are limited in our power and knowledge. From this, we can infer that Pure Act must possess all power and all knowledge. Pure actuality is nothing less than the fullness of what potentiality may attain to.
By way of conclusion, we have seen that a single, changeless, eternal, omnipresent, omnipotent and omniscient being exists. This, as the Angelic Doctor muses, is what everyone understands to be God.
Monday, July 27, 2009
Thursday, July 16, 2009
The Thomistic Cosmological Argument - Revised
1. Every dependent being derives its existence from some other being.
2. The series of dependent beings either proceeds to infinity, or has a first being.
3. The series of dependent beings cannot proceed to infinity.
4. Therefore, a first being exists.
This argument is really a summary of Thomas' proof as found in De Ente et Essentia. I like this version, since it doesn't rely on "causation" per se, with all of its alleged deterministic connotations.
The first premise has been defended explicitly since at least the time of Parmenides. Ex nihilo nihil fit: out of nothing comes nothing. If there were literally nothing, then not even the potentiality for something to come into being would exist. But, since something exists, it must be either dependent or self-existent.* We certainly observe dependent things in the world. An oak tree is dependent on the acorn, for example.
The second premise doesn't involve a temporal succession of events. Rather, the claim is that there is a series of beings that entail rank or source. Hence, it is considered hierarchical, instead of temporal.
Is it possible that this series is infinite? Several reasons are given against this conclusion. For one, a self-existent first being seems to be required in order for any dependent beings to exist. Just as a house needs a foundation, else the entire structure collapse, dependent beings likewise require something to hold them up. Moreover, if the series of dependent beings is infinite, then an infinite series would be sustaining something within a finite period of time. However, it would take infinite time for an infinite series to do anything. Hence, the series itself must be finite and therefore is grounded in a first being, in confirmation of (3).
I think this is a very reasonable conclusion to make. One might object that in a finite space, there are infinitely-many points. Of course, this argument is undermined by the fact that mathematical points are abstract and don't possess any physical dimensions. Furthermore, a finite space still has definite first and last points; so if there is any analogy between the two, a first being is still required.
The most difficult part of this argument for the Thomist, in my view, is in making the inference from a first being to the claim that this being's existence and essence
are identical. This conclusion does appear to follow from the argument above, though. The reason why is that if the first being is not dependent on anything else, then it cannot derive either its existence or its essence from another. Allow me to put this more explicitly.
The difference between a real unicorn and an imaginary unicorn is that the former is instantiated in actuality. This doesn't fall prey to the Kantian maxim that existence is not a predicate, since we're not merely adding existence to something purely conceptual. Rather, we're considering an a posteriori claim. From this it follows that a unicorn's existence is dependent on something else that brings about its existence. But, we have already seen that the series of dependent beings cannot proceed to infinity. If a being's existence is distinct from its essence, its existence is either brought about by some external being or by its own essential properties. The problem here is that nothing can be brought about by its own essential properties.** The difficulty with the former is that the first being does not derive its existence from anything else; otherwise, it wouldn't be first, which is a self-contradiction.
The conclusion seems to follow, then, that the first being's existence and essence are identical. The reason I say this is a difficulty (although there are certainly solutions) is that the divine attributes that are later inferred about this first being do appear to be distinct. Goodness seems logically distinct from power, knowledge from aseity, and so forth. The Thomist stresses the doctrine of analogy, which views the attributes of God as one and the same, so that the goodness of God really is the same as His power, etc. It's obvious that in us these characteristics are different, but what about in the divine essence?
*Something is self-existent if it exists by a necessity of its own nature. This shouldn't be confused with self-causation.
**This solution has the same problem as with self-causation. Something must already exist in order to bring about its own existence, which is absurd.
2. The series of dependent beings either proceeds to infinity, or has a first being.
3. The series of dependent beings cannot proceed to infinity.
4. Therefore, a first being exists.
This argument is really a summary of Thomas' proof as found in De Ente et Essentia. I like this version, since it doesn't rely on "causation" per se, with all of its alleged deterministic connotations.
The first premise has been defended explicitly since at least the time of Parmenides. Ex nihilo nihil fit: out of nothing comes nothing. If there were literally nothing, then not even the potentiality for something to come into being would exist. But, since something exists, it must be either dependent or self-existent.* We certainly observe dependent things in the world. An oak tree is dependent on the acorn, for example.
The second premise doesn't involve a temporal succession of events. Rather, the claim is that there is a series of beings that entail rank or source. Hence, it is considered hierarchical, instead of temporal.
Is it possible that this series is infinite? Several reasons are given against this conclusion. For one, a self-existent first being seems to be required in order for any dependent beings to exist. Just as a house needs a foundation, else the entire structure collapse, dependent beings likewise require something to hold them up. Moreover, if the series of dependent beings is infinite, then an infinite series would be sustaining something within a finite period of time. However, it would take infinite time for an infinite series to do anything. Hence, the series itself must be finite and therefore is grounded in a first being, in confirmation of (3).
I think this is a very reasonable conclusion to make. One might object that in a finite space, there are infinitely-many points. Of course, this argument is undermined by the fact that mathematical points are abstract and don't possess any physical dimensions. Furthermore, a finite space still has definite first and last points; so if there is any analogy between the two, a first being is still required.
The most difficult part of this argument for the Thomist, in my view, is in making the inference from a first being to the claim that this being's existence and essence
are identical. This conclusion does appear to follow from the argument above, though. The reason why is that if the first being is not dependent on anything else, then it cannot derive either its existence or its essence from another. Allow me to put this more explicitly.
The difference between a real unicorn and an imaginary unicorn is that the former is instantiated in actuality. This doesn't fall prey to the Kantian maxim that existence is not a predicate, since we're not merely adding existence to something purely conceptual. Rather, we're considering an a posteriori claim. From this it follows that a unicorn's existence is dependent on something else that brings about its existence. But, we have already seen that the series of dependent beings cannot proceed to infinity. If a being's existence is distinct from its essence, its existence is either brought about by some external being or by its own essential properties. The problem here is that nothing can be brought about by its own essential properties.** The difficulty with the former is that the first being does not derive its existence from anything else; otherwise, it wouldn't be first, which is a self-contradiction.
The conclusion seems to follow, then, that the first being's existence and essence are identical. The reason I say this is a difficulty (although there are certainly solutions) is that the divine attributes that are later inferred about this first being do appear to be distinct. Goodness seems logically distinct from power, knowledge from aseity, and so forth. The Thomist stresses the doctrine of analogy, which views the attributes of God as one and the same, so that the goodness of God really is the same as His power, etc. It's obvious that in us these characteristics are different, but what about in the divine essence?
*Something is self-existent if it exists by a necessity of its own nature. This shouldn't be confused with self-causation.
**This solution has the same problem as with self-causation. Something must already exist in order to bring about its own existence, which is absurd.
Monday, July 6, 2009
The Third Way
Thomas Aquinas' tertia via ("third way") has been the subject of criticism by theists and atheists alike. William Rowe, for example, discusses this argument, summarizing it as follows:
i. Whatever is a contingent being at one time did not exist.
Therefore:
ii. If everything is contingent then at one time nothing existed.
iii. If at one time nothing existed then nothing would exist now.
iv. Something does exist now.
Therefore:
. . . Not every being is a contingent being.
Rowe objects, "Even if we concede (i) to Aquinas, . . . the inference of (ii) from (i) is clearly invalid. From (i) it follows that if everything is contingent then for each thing there is a time at which it does not exist. That is, where Cx = x is a contingent being, Ty = y is a time, and Exy = x exists at y, from (i) it follows that
"2a. . . . Each contingent thing is such that there is some time or other when it did not exist.
"But from (i) it does not follow that
"2b. There is some definite time such that no contingent being existed at that time." [1]
If this is what Thomas is saying, then Rowe is correct that the argument is unsound. However, to Rowe's credit, he does make this qualification:
"It is sometimes suggested that there may be a plausible premise or principle that, when added to (i), will give us a logically valid inference to (ii). Father Copleston suggests, for example, that Aquinas is supposing that in an infinite time any real potentiality inevitably would be realized. Accordingly, the questionable inference is not from (i) to (ii) but from (i) and the proposition that in an infinite time any real potentiality would be realized." [2]
I think this is a reasonable inference to make. I'll attempt to reformulate the argument in a way that clarifies Thomas' original meaning, along with Copleston's interpretation. It should be pointed out, though, that when Thomas writes of "contingent" things, he doesn't mean logically contingent; he means temporally contingent, or corruptible. Likewise, "necessary" does not refer to logical necessity, but to temporal necessity.
1. Every existing entity is either corruptible or necessary.
2. Something has always existed.
3. Every corruptible entity potentially fails to exist.
4. Given infinite time, every real potentiality will be actualized.
5. Hence, there is some time in the infinite past in which every corruptible entity collectively fails to exist.
6. Therefore, a necessary entity exists. (From 1, 2, and 5).
(1) gives us our available options. If something exists, but is not corruptible, then it must exist necessarily. (2) is based on the principle that something cannot come from nothing. If there were ever a time in which nothing existed (is such a state of affairs contradictory, anyway?), then not even the potentiality for something to come into being would exist. As a result, nothing would be able to exist.
(3) is true by definition. If corruptible entities cannot not-be, then it follows that they exist necessarily, and (6) already concludes that something necessarily exists. As it is, however, there are many corruptible entities: trees, tables, planets, stars, galaxies, people, and so forth.
(4) is likely the most controversial premise, but it's not hard to see why Thomas (following Maimonides) came to this conclusion. If we were talking about a finite period of time, then we might have more of an incentive to deny this premise. However, if there is even the potential that every corruptible entity fails to exist, then given infinite time, it seems quite rational to say they would.
One way to get around this is by pointing to the one-to-one correspondence of actual infinites:
{2, 4, 6, 8, ... n} has just as many members as {1, 2, 3, 4, ... n}, where the first set includes all even positive numbers and the latter includes all positive numbers. Perhaps given infinite past time, only some of the infinitely-many potentialities are actualized?
The problem, I think, with this objection is that past time isn't like Cantorian set theory, even assuming that the past is infinite. The moments of the past did not arrive at the present from {8, 6, 4, 2, p}, where p = present time. On the other hand, I agree that the objection does show that there is no logical contradiction, broadly speaking, with a rejection of (4). What the proponent of the third way will have to argue, then, is that it is more likely that (4) is true than its negation.
(5), of course, follows from (3) and (4). So, if our tentative (4) is correct, then it follows that a necessary entity exists. Is there any way to strengthen the argument, so that we don't have to rely on (4)? I briefly sketched an argument in an earlier post, inspired by Robert Maydole [3], that shows we can modalize the third way in such a manner that we can be confident that a necessary entity exists:
Where x = an entity; C = temporally contingent; t = time; P = past time; y = explicandum; and Eyx = x explains y.
1. (x) (Cx □ → ◊ (t) ~xt).
2. (x) ◊ (□t) ~xt □ → ◊ (□t) (x) ~Pxt.
3. ~(x) (◊x □ → ◊ (y) (x ^ Eyx)).
4. ~[(□x) ◊ (□y) Eyx □ → ~(□t) (x) ~Pxt].
5. ~Pxt → ~C(x).
6. :. ~C(x).
In English:
1. Every temporally contingent entity possibly fails to exist at some time.
2. If all entities possibly fail to exist at some time, then it is possible that all entities collectively fail to exist at some past time.
3. It is necessarily the case that possible truths are explicable.
4. It is necessarily the case that something is explicable if and only if there was not a time when nothing existed.
5. If there could never have been a time when nothing existed, then a temporally necessary entity exists.
6. Therefore, a temporally necessary entity exists.
Notice that we have gone from a purely metaphysical analysis to an inclusion of possible worlds. (1) and (2) should not be at all controversial, since there is no contradiction in asserting that a given temporally contingent entity doesn't exist. The old Yankee stadium existed, but it doesn't logically have to, as is evidenced by its closing.
(3) states that possible truths are explicable, but not that possible truths must have an explanation, so there isn't a dependence on even a moderately strong version of the PSR. A state of affairs need not have an explanation in order for it to have an explanation in some possible world.
(4) points out that if literally nothing existed, then there wouldn't even exist possible explanations, or time itself. The idea of an existing time in which nothing exists is self-contradictory. But, since it's not possible for nothing to exist, then from (2) and (4), we know that (5) is true, and therefore (6) follows: a temporally necessary entity exists. Q.E.D.
Works Cited
[1] William L. Rowe, The Cosmological Argument, Fordham University Press, 1998, pp. 42-43.
[2] ibid., pp. 43-44.
[3] Robert Maydole, "Aquinas' Third Way Modalized," http://www.bu.edu/wcp/Papers/Reli/ReliMayd.htm.
i. Whatever is a contingent being at one time did not exist.
Therefore:
ii. If everything is contingent then at one time nothing existed.
iii. If at one time nothing existed then nothing would exist now.
iv. Something does exist now.
Therefore:
. . . Not every being is a contingent being.
Rowe objects, "Even if we concede (i) to Aquinas, . . . the inference of (ii) from (i) is clearly invalid. From (i) it follows that if everything is contingent then for each thing there is a time at which it does not exist. That is, where Cx = x is a contingent being, Ty = y is a time, and Exy = x exists at y, from (i) it follows that
"2a. . . . Each contingent thing is such that there is some time or other when it did not exist.
"But from (i) it does not follow that
"2b. There is some definite time such that no contingent being existed at that time." [1]
If this is what Thomas is saying, then Rowe is correct that the argument is unsound. However, to Rowe's credit, he does make this qualification:
"It is sometimes suggested that there may be a plausible premise or principle that, when added to (i), will give us a logically valid inference to (ii). Father Copleston suggests, for example, that Aquinas is supposing that in an infinite time any real potentiality inevitably would be realized. Accordingly, the questionable inference is not from (i) to (ii) but from (i) and the proposition that in an infinite time any real potentiality would be realized." [2]
I think this is a reasonable inference to make. I'll attempt to reformulate the argument in a way that clarifies Thomas' original meaning, along with Copleston's interpretation. It should be pointed out, though, that when Thomas writes of "contingent" things, he doesn't mean logically contingent; he means temporally contingent, or corruptible. Likewise, "necessary" does not refer to logical necessity, but to temporal necessity.
1. Every existing entity is either corruptible or necessary.
2. Something has always existed.
3. Every corruptible entity potentially fails to exist.
4. Given infinite time, every real potentiality will be actualized.
5. Hence, there is some time in the infinite past in which every corruptible entity collectively fails to exist.
6. Therefore, a necessary entity exists. (From 1, 2, and 5).
(1) gives us our available options. If something exists, but is not corruptible, then it must exist necessarily. (2) is based on the principle that something cannot come from nothing. If there were ever a time in which nothing existed (is such a state of affairs contradictory, anyway?), then not even the potentiality for something to come into being would exist. As a result, nothing would be able to exist.
(3) is true by definition. If corruptible entities cannot not-be, then it follows that they exist necessarily, and (6) already concludes that something necessarily exists. As it is, however, there are many corruptible entities: trees, tables, planets, stars, galaxies, people, and so forth.
(4) is likely the most controversial premise, but it's not hard to see why Thomas (following Maimonides) came to this conclusion. If we were talking about a finite period of time, then we might have more of an incentive to deny this premise. However, if there is even the potential that every corruptible entity fails to exist, then given infinite time, it seems quite rational to say they would.
One way to get around this is by pointing to the one-to-one correspondence of actual infinites:
{2, 4, 6, 8, ... n} has just as many members as {1, 2, 3, 4, ... n}, where the first set includes all even positive numbers and the latter includes all positive numbers. Perhaps given infinite past time, only some of the infinitely-many potentialities are actualized?
The problem, I think, with this objection is that past time isn't like Cantorian set theory, even assuming that the past is infinite. The moments of the past did not arrive at the present from {8, 6, 4, 2, p}, where p = present time. On the other hand, I agree that the objection does show that there is no logical contradiction, broadly speaking, with a rejection of (4). What the proponent of the third way will have to argue, then, is that it is more likely that (4) is true than its negation.
(5), of course, follows from (3) and (4). So, if our tentative (4) is correct, then it follows that a necessary entity exists. Is there any way to strengthen the argument, so that we don't have to rely on (4)? I briefly sketched an argument in an earlier post, inspired by Robert Maydole [3], that shows we can modalize the third way in such a manner that we can be confident that a necessary entity exists:
Where x = an entity; C = temporally contingent; t = time; P = past time; y = explicandum; and Eyx = x explains y.
1. (x) (Cx □ → ◊ (t) ~xt).
2. (x) ◊ (□t) ~xt □ → ◊ (□t) (x) ~Pxt.
3. ~(x) (◊x □ → ◊ (y) (x ^ Eyx)).
4. ~[(□x) ◊ (□y) Eyx □ → ~(□t) (x) ~Pxt].
5. ~Pxt → ~C(x).
6. :. ~C(x).
In English:
1. Every temporally contingent entity possibly fails to exist at some time.
2. If all entities possibly fail to exist at some time, then it is possible that all entities collectively fail to exist at some past time.
3. It is necessarily the case that possible truths are explicable.
4. It is necessarily the case that something is explicable if and only if there was not a time when nothing existed.
5. If there could never have been a time when nothing existed, then a temporally necessary entity exists.
6. Therefore, a temporally necessary entity exists.
Notice that we have gone from a purely metaphysical analysis to an inclusion of possible worlds. (1) and (2) should not be at all controversial, since there is no contradiction in asserting that a given temporally contingent entity doesn't exist. The old Yankee stadium existed, but it doesn't logically have to, as is evidenced by its closing.
(3) states that possible truths are explicable, but not that possible truths must have an explanation, so there isn't a dependence on even a moderately strong version of the PSR. A state of affairs need not have an explanation in order for it to have an explanation in some possible world.
(4) points out that if literally nothing existed, then there wouldn't even exist possible explanations, or time itself. The idea of an existing time in which nothing exists is self-contradictory. But, since it's not possible for nothing to exist, then from (2) and (4), we know that (5) is true, and therefore (6) follows: a temporally necessary entity exists. Q.E.D.
Works Cited
[1] William L. Rowe, The Cosmological Argument, Fordham University Press, 1998, pp. 42-43.
[2] ibid., pp. 43-44.
[3] Robert Maydole, "Aquinas' Third Way Modalized," http://www.bu.edu/wcp/Papers/Reli/ReliMayd.htm.
Thursday, June 18, 2009
"Rap Has Dissed Abortion"?
Jeff Koloze, of Clark State Community College (Ohio), has written a thought-provoking article on the connection between rap music and the pro-life movement. Check it out.
Friday, June 12, 2009
The Argument From Motion and the Alleged Composition Fallacy
There are many Cosmological Arguments. It is perhaps more surprising that there are many variations of the individual versions of the Cosmological Argument. One, expressed similarly by Kreeft and Tacelli, goes like this:
1. Everything in motion is moved by another.
2. The universe is in motion.
3. Therefore, the universe is moved by another.
In this case, "motion" just means "change." A pile of bricks is a brick wall in potentiality, but it requires someone or something to build it into a wall in order from the pile to move from potentiality to actuality qua wall.
The second premise is sometimes alleged to commit the fallacy of composition. This fallacy is committed by applying something to the whole, when it only really has application to its individual parts. Sticking with our brick wall analogy, even though all of the individual bricks may be small, the wall as a whole may very well be large. This is known as an incidental composition.
However, sometimes it does make sense to apply to the whole what also belongs essentially to its parts. Hence, this is known as an essential composition. For instance, given that each part of the wall is made of brick, it logically follows that the entire wall is itself made of brick.
A proponent of this version of the Cosmological Argument will contend that (2) makes use of an essential composition. In fact, it is difficult conceptually to think how if every part of the universe is in motion, that the universe as a whole would not itself be in motion. Now, if the universe really is in motion (and it appears more than reasonable to think it is), then we can either: a) accept (3) as a sound inference; or b) make an exception for the universe and say that it is not moved by another. The problem is that (b) must be supported by some line of reasoning, or else it commits the fallacy of special pleading. Barring any reason for this exception, then, it seems that the argument from motion is a sound one.
Our job is then to show what attributes we can infer about the universe's mover, the first mover, so to speak. We have looked at these attributes in some detail in other posts, especially in the one dealing with the Inductive Cosmological Argument.
1. Everything in motion is moved by another.
2. The universe is in motion.
3. Therefore, the universe is moved by another.
In this case, "motion" just means "change." A pile of bricks is a brick wall in potentiality, but it requires someone or something to build it into a wall in order from the pile to move from potentiality to actuality qua wall.
The second premise is sometimes alleged to commit the fallacy of composition. This fallacy is committed by applying something to the whole, when it only really has application to its individual parts. Sticking with our brick wall analogy, even though all of the individual bricks may be small, the wall as a whole may very well be large. This is known as an incidental composition.
However, sometimes it does make sense to apply to the whole what also belongs essentially to its parts. Hence, this is known as an essential composition. For instance, given that each part of the wall is made of brick, it logically follows that the entire wall is itself made of brick.
A proponent of this version of the Cosmological Argument will contend that (2) makes use of an essential composition. In fact, it is difficult conceptually to think how if every part of the universe is in motion, that the universe as a whole would not itself be in motion. Now, if the universe really is in motion (and it appears more than reasonable to think it is), then we can either: a) accept (3) as a sound inference; or b) make an exception for the universe and say that it is not moved by another. The problem is that (b) must be supported by some line of reasoning, or else it commits the fallacy of special pleading. Barring any reason for this exception, then, it seems that the argument from motion is a sound one.
Our job is then to show what attributes we can infer about the universe's mover, the first mover, so to speak. We have looked at these attributes in some detail in other posts, especially in the one dealing with the Inductive Cosmological Argument.
Tuesday, June 9, 2009
Some Thoughts on the Moral Argument
The traditional axiological argument, also known as the moral argument, has been ably defended by many theistic philosophers. Geisler's version goes like this:
1. Every law has a law-giver.
2. There is an objective moral law.
3. Therefore, there is an objective moral law-giver.
When we consider (1), it becomes clear that laws are prescriptive rather than merely descriptive. In other words, they tell us what we ought to do, instead of merely detailing an action that is done. This suggests to us that the moral law-giver of (3) is personal, since prescriptions have their source in persons. Imagine going to a pharmacy and handing one of the staff a piece of paper without a doctor's signature. If they ask you, "who prescribed this?" and you answer, "nobody; it's just a prescription," then you would get a puzzled look at the least, and an appointment at the nearest psychiatric ward at the worst.
For Geisler, and any moral realist, (2) is supported best by our own moral experience. Indeed, the idea that rape, torture, child abuse, or murder are morally ambivalent is rejected by everyone in practice. Even those who commit these crimes would object if someone did the same to them, which is indicative of the reality of their own moral compass.
Craig's moral argument is summarized as follows:
4. If God does not exist, then objective moral values do not exist.
5. Objective moral values exist.
6. Therefore, God exists.
Craig's version is a reductio ad absurdum, which makes use of modus tollens. The argument is essentially the same, except that Craig's treatment has been more in depth. Not only do we have the reason that Geisler gives for attaching objective moral values (or an objective moral law) to a personal law-giver (God), but there are additional reason for thinking so, as well. One of my favorite reasons makes use of Kant's practical axiological argument, which Craig defended in his debate with Louise Antony:
7. Moral behavior is rational.
8. Moral behavior is rational if and only if justice will be done.
9. Justice will be done if and only if God exists.
10. Therefore, God exists.
The defense of (7) is much the same as the defense of (2) and (5). We have a perception of the rationality of moral behavior. In fact, it would be quite irrational to reject such behavior in practice. Think of the devastation that would result if everyone treated child abuse as morally neutral. The truth is, we have no reason for rejecting the rationality of moral behavior, and every reason to accept that moral behavior is rational.
I would defend (8) by simply pointing out that if justice is not done, then there is no incentive to behave morally. If we benefit the most by being greedy and hateful, and so forth, then why not embrace these vices? Only if justice will be done do we have any reason for striving for virtue as opposed to vice.
Yet, this brings us to premise (9). Upon just a brief reflection, we realize that there is much injustice in the world. If this life is all there is, then justice will not be done and there is no reason, practically speaking, to accept (7). Only if there is a life beyond this can we salvage the rationality of moral behavior. In addition, only if God exists is there any hope that there will be a judgment in which we are reckoned according to our deeds (Psalm 62:12; Prov. 24:12; Rom. 2:6). So, we find that God's existence can be inferred by the practicality of morality.
A number of objections have been made to the moral argument, but I don't find any of these at all compelling. One of these objections is that since we have developed morality through the process of evolution, then we cannot say that the moral law is objective; we could have evolved in another way. A similar objection is that morality is culturally relative, and that we learn our moral behavior by our particular society. The flaw in both of these arguments is that they both commit a very basic genetic fallacy. The manner in which something is learned has no effect upon the verisimilitude (truth-value) of a given proposition. I learned the multiplication tables from my second-grade teacher, but that doesn't mean that multiplication is anything short of objective.
Moreover, the relativity of moral values isn't nearly as great as some purport. And even if it were great, it doesn't make any difference to the argument at hand. The reason why is simply that some cultures can be wrong. Any culture that believes the earth is flat, for example, is not engaging in just another relative speculation. Such a culture is objectively incorrect in that assessment. Likewise, if a culture accepts the practice of, say, genocide, then they are wrong in doing so. I don't believe this to be an arrogant presumption by any means. After all, the relativist who claims this is arrogant is presupposing the objectivity of arrogance being a vice, so the objection actually undermines itself.
Another objection is that we should behave morally, not for the sake of an afterlife, but for the sake of future generations. The immediate difficulty with this is that all future generations will eventually die, as well. Hence, unless there is a God who will judge our works, there remains no incentive to behave morally.
A third objection to consider is that atheists, and non-theists in general, are capable of living morally. I fully acknowledge this. The claim, however, is not that atheists cannot behave morally, but that their atheism cannot make sense out of living morally. To put it another way, atheists can be moral, but only in spite of, and not because of, their respective worldview.
One final objection is the Euthyphro Dilemma: is something good because God wills it, or does God will it because it is good? What the dilemma assumes is that goodness is either due to the arbitrary will of God, in which case God can change it at a whim; or else, goodness exists independently of God, and so we don't have to invoke God in order to make sense out of morality. The problem with this is at least twofold.
First, let's assume that the Euthyphro Dilemma's conclusion is correct and that goodness exists independently of God. Even if this were the case, there is still no assurance that justice will be done. This is why I like Kant's argument so much. It requires the skeptic not only to make sense out of what morality is, but it also requires him to make sense out of moral accountability. On atheism, there simply is no such accountability, so the question remains: why should one engage in moral behavior?
Secondly, what we find is that the Euthyphro Dilemma is actually a false dilemma. A true dilemma states that either A or ~A. What the Euthyphro Dilemma states, on the other hand, is A or B. Since the two are not contradictory, we can accept both. God's willing something is due neither to a mere whim, nor to its being good independently of Him. Instead, something is good because it reflects God's own nature. God is the summum bonum, the "greatest good" itself, and so He is the very standard of goodness.
Overall, then, I believe there is much to be gained by contemplating the inference from morality to God. The challenge for atheists to make sense of axiology, in my estimation, remains.
1. Every law has a law-giver.
2. There is an objective moral law.
3. Therefore, there is an objective moral law-giver.
When we consider (1), it becomes clear that laws are prescriptive rather than merely descriptive. In other words, they tell us what we ought to do, instead of merely detailing an action that is done. This suggests to us that the moral law-giver of (3) is personal, since prescriptions have their source in persons. Imagine going to a pharmacy and handing one of the staff a piece of paper without a doctor's signature. If they ask you, "who prescribed this?" and you answer, "nobody; it's just a prescription," then you would get a puzzled look at the least, and an appointment at the nearest psychiatric ward at the worst.
For Geisler, and any moral realist, (2) is supported best by our own moral experience. Indeed, the idea that rape, torture, child abuse, or murder are morally ambivalent is rejected by everyone in practice. Even those who commit these crimes would object if someone did the same to them, which is indicative of the reality of their own moral compass.
Craig's moral argument is summarized as follows:
4. If God does not exist, then objective moral values do not exist.
5. Objective moral values exist.
6. Therefore, God exists.
Craig's version is a reductio ad absurdum, which makes use of modus tollens. The argument is essentially the same, except that Craig's treatment has been more in depth. Not only do we have the reason that Geisler gives for attaching objective moral values (or an objective moral law) to a personal law-giver (God), but there are additional reason for thinking so, as well. One of my favorite reasons makes use of Kant's practical axiological argument, which Craig defended in his debate with Louise Antony:
7. Moral behavior is rational.
8. Moral behavior is rational if and only if justice will be done.
9. Justice will be done if and only if God exists.
10. Therefore, God exists.
The defense of (7) is much the same as the defense of (2) and (5). We have a perception of the rationality of moral behavior. In fact, it would be quite irrational to reject such behavior in practice. Think of the devastation that would result if everyone treated child abuse as morally neutral. The truth is, we have no reason for rejecting the rationality of moral behavior, and every reason to accept that moral behavior is rational.
I would defend (8) by simply pointing out that if justice is not done, then there is no incentive to behave morally. If we benefit the most by being greedy and hateful, and so forth, then why not embrace these vices? Only if justice will be done do we have any reason for striving for virtue as opposed to vice.
Yet, this brings us to premise (9). Upon just a brief reflection, we realize that there is much injustice in the world. If this life is all there is, then justice will not be done and there is no reason, practically speaking, to accept (7). Only if there is a life beyond this can we salvage the rationality of moral behavior. In addition, only if God exists is there any hope that there will be a judgment in which we are reckoned according to our deeds (Psalm 62:12; Prov. 24:12; Rom. 2:6). So, we find that God's existence can be inferred by the practicality of morality.
A number of objections have been made to the moral argument, but I don't find any of these at all compelling. One of these objections is that since we have developed morality through the process of evolution, then we cannot say that the moral law is objective; we could have evolved in another way. A similar objection is that morality is culturally relative, and that we learn our moral behavior by our particular society. The flaw in both of these arguments is that they both commit a very basic genetic fallacy. The manner in which something is learned has no effect upon the verisimilitude (truth-value) of a given proposition. I learned the multiplication tables from my second-grade teacher, but that doesn't mean that multiplication is anything short of objective.
Moreover, the relativity of moral values isn't nearly as great as some purport. And even if it were great, it doesn't make any difference to the argument at hand. The reason why is simply that some cultures can be wrong. Any culture that believes the earth is flat, for example, is not engaging in just another relative speculation. Such a culture is objectively incorrect in that assessment. Likewise, if a culture accepts the practice of, say, genocide, then they are wrong in doing so. I don't believe this to be an arrogant presumption by any means. After all, the relativist who claims this is arrogant is presupposing the objectivity of arrogance being a vice, so the objection actually undermines itself.
Another objection is that we should behave morally, not for the sake of an afterlife, but for the sake of future generations. The immediate difficulty with this is that all future generations will eventually die, as well. Hence, unless there is a God who will judge our works, there remains no incentive to behave morally.
A third objection to consider is that atheists, and non-theists in general, are capable of living morally. I fully acknowledge this. The claim, however, is not that atheists cannot behave morally, but that their atheism cannot make sense out of living morally. To put it another way, atheists can be moral, but only in spite of, and not because of, their respective worldview.
One final objection is the Euthyphro Dilemma: is something good because God wills it, or does God will it because it is good? What the dilemma assumes is that goodness is either due to the arbitrary will of God, in which case God can change it at a whim; or else, goodness exists independently of God, and so we don't have to invoke God in order to make sense out of morality. The problem with this is at least twofold.
First, let's assume that the Euthyphro Dilemma's conclusion is correct and that goodness exists independently of God. Even if this were the case, there is still no assurance that justice will be done. This is why I like Kant's argument so much. It requires the skeptic not only to make sense out of what morality is, but it also requires him to make sense out of moral accountability. On atheism, there simply is no such accountability, so the question remains: why should one engage in moral behavior?
Secondly, what we find is that the Euthyphro Dilemma is actually a false dilemma. A true dilemma states that either A or ~A. What the Euthyphro Dilemma states, on the other hand, is A or B. Since the two are not contradictory, we can accept both. God's willing something is due neither to a mere whim, nor to its being good independently of Him. Instead, something is good because it reflects God's own nature. God is the summum bonum, the "greatest good" itself, and so He is the very standard of goodness.
Overall, then, I believe there is much to be gained by contemplating the inference from morality to God. The challenge for atheists to make sense of axiology, in my estimation, remains.
Saturday, June 6, 2009
More on the Conceptualist Argument
We've already taken a look at a strong objection to Platonism's view of abstract objects. This was based on a causal argument against the idea that abstracta exist independently of the mind. Given their necessity, then, abstracta are demonstrated to be concepts of a divine mind via reductio ad absurdum. However, are there any positive, direct reasons to accept conceptualism?
One possibility would involve the argument from intentionality. It appears as though statements, such as "2+2=4," "all bachelors are unmarried," and "Jones is sitting under a tree in W," are all about something. That is to say, propositions, if they have any meaning, seem to be intended, or to have intentions. Yet, intentions do not exist independently of persons. Without the existence of a mind that intends meaning in a statement, the statement is just a set of words.
Given the intentionality of propositional statements, therefore, along with the necessity of at least some propositions, we have good reasons to believe that the Conceptualist Argument provides a rational basis for theism.
One possibility would involve the argument from intentionality. It appears as though statements, such as "2+2=4," "all bachelors are unmarried," and "Jones is sitting under a tree in W," are all about something. That is to say, propositions, if they have any meaning, seem to be intended, or to have intentions. Yet, intentions do not exist independently of persons. Without the existence of a mind that intends meaning in a statement, the statement is just a set of words.
Given the intentionality of propositional statements, therefore, along with the necessity of at least some propositions, we have good reasons to believe that the Conceptualist Argument provides a rational basis for theism.
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